Post by Demreb on Sept 8, 2004 21:29:07 GMT -5
Can someone explain this logic to me? Why is it that the Gold Gloves over the past number of years, seem to be awarded to the players with the best offensive stats?
I swear I heard a couple of announcers (can't recall their names) say things like:
"There's a nice play by (player). He should get the Gold Glove this year, he's been hitting a ton."
and
"Great defensive stop by (player). Too bad he won't win the Gold Glove, he doesn't hit enough."
Why are the two connected? I can understand that if a player (say Pujols) makes some nice defensive plays and also hits for average and/or homeruns that he has more attention focused on him. But just because the guy can hit, doesn't mean he deserves a Gold Glove.
They have Silver Slugger awards for offense and Gold Gloves for defense. So what if the Gold Gloves all go to the offensive lightweights like Vizquel, Ozzie Smith from years back, etc.?
I swear I heard a couple of announcers (can't recall their names) say things like:
"There's a nice play by (player). He should get the Gold Glove this year, he's been hitting a ton."
and
"Great defensive stop by (player). Too bad he won't win the Gold Glove, he doesn't hit enough."
Why are the two connected? I can understand that if a player (say Pujols) makes some nice defensive plays and also hits for average and/or homeruns that he has more attention focused on him. But just because the guy can hit, doesn't mean he deserves a Gold Glove.
They have Silver Slugger awards for offense and Gold Gloves for defense. So what if the Gold Gloves all go to the offensive lightweights like Vizquel, Ozzie Smith from years back, etc.?
